Original Message:
One less volunteer... (by KC):
jayjay states: >> I don't know about other verbal contracts being valid in a court of law, but I do know that anything a timeshare salesperson verbally tells a prospective buyer (if it's not in writing in the contract) holds absolutely no water in a court of law. The ONLY contract that holds water is the written contract that many buyers fail to read at all.
I honestly don't see how ANY verbal contract, if not in writing, can be valid in a court of law (he said, she said syndrom). ================================================
I'm not interested in conducting a law class here, but you're essentially comparing apples and spinach. I'll try to be very brief (no pun intended) in making a simple but clear distinction here. You are correct that any and all verbal statements made by a salesperson **OUTSIDE OF** (i.e., NOT also specifically reflected in writing within) the associated written content of a timeshare sales contract do NOT somehow magically become any part of that written contract. Developer sales weasels know this fact. If it's not in writing within the sales contract, it simply does not exist. That much is clear and indisputable.
However, you are NOT correct in apparently believing that a verbal contract can neither exist nor be valid and upheld in court. On the contrary, it happens every day, generally with some witness corroboration on one or both side(s). In the absence of (or with) witness input, the court ultimately decides on credibility and merit and, consequently, who ultimately prevails in the matter.
In short summary, these are two completely different situations --- one in which there is, in fact, a written contract and one in which there is no written contract at all. This is essentially comparing apples to spinach ---they are simply just completely and entirely different.